KL Rahul, Manish Pandey Bag Bumper Indian Premier League Deals

Agencies
January 27, 2018

Jan 27: India opener K L Rahul and middle-order batsman Manish Pandey bagged bumper deals at the Indian Premier League Player Auction on Saturday. Kings XI Punjab and SunRisers Hyderabad (SRH) were involved in a bidding war for Rahul, with the former acquiring his services at Rs 10.5 crore after Royal Challengers Bangalore did not use their Right to Match (RTM) card to retain him. Interestingly, Pandey was bought by SRH at the exact same price to equal Rahul as the most expensive Indian at this year's auction until then. Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR), after several discussions, opted not to use the RTM card to retain the stylish right-hander.

Pandey's 11-crore deal definitely surprised quite a few fans. However, it must be noted that the Karnataka batsman was been a consistent performer in IPL as well as domestic cricket.

West Indian swashbuckler Chris Gayle surprisingly went unsold despite his well-established T20 batting credentials. England Test captain Joe Root also went unsold.

Indian batsman Karun Nair, who had a base price of Rs 50 lakh, fetched a bid of Rs 5.60 crore from KXIP, reaffirming the franchises' interest in Indian players.

The other big buy among the 16 marquee players was Glenn Maxwell, who was back in the Delhi Daredevils fold after five years for a record Rs 9.40 crore after intense bidding. DD had the last laugh when KXIP refused to use their RTM card.

Chennai Super Kings bought Harbhajan Singh at his base price of Rs 2 crore. Dwayne Bravo was taken for Rs 6.40 crore by CSK using the RTM card.

Kieron Pollard was predictably bought by Mumbai Indians using their Right To Match (RTM) card for Rs 5.40 crore while Sunrisers Hyderabad bought back Shikhar Dhawan for Rs 5.2 crore after heavy bidding from KXIP.

Faf du Plessis was retained by CSK for only Rs 1.60 crore, while Kane Williamson was back at SRH for Rs 3 crore.

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News Network
September 19,2024

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Narendra Modi-led government of India has abstained in the UN General Assembly on a resolution that demanded that Israel bring an end, “without delay”, to its unlawful presence in the Occupied Palestinian Territory within 12 months.

The 193-member General Assembly adopted the resolution, with 124 nations voting in favour, 14 against and 43 abstentions, including that by India.

Those abstaining included Australia, Canada, Germany, Italy, Nepal, Ukraine and the United Kingdom.

Israel and the US were among the nations who voted against the resolution titled ‘Advisory opinion of the International Court of Justice on the legal consequences arising from Israel’s policies and practices in the Occupied Palestinian Territory, including East Jerusalem, and from the illegality of Israel’s continued presence in the Occupied Palestinian Territory’.

The resolution adopted Wednesday demanded that “Israel brings to an end without delay its unlawful presence in the Occupied Palestinian Territory, which constitutes a wrongful act of a continuing character entailing its international responsibility, and do so no later than 12 months from the adoption of the present resolution.” 

The Palestinian-drafted resolution also strongly deplored the continued and total disregard and breaches by the Government of Israel of its obligations under the Charter of the United Nations, international law and the relevant United Nations resolutions, and stressed that such breaches seriously threaten regional and international peace and security.

It recognised that Israel must be held to account for any violations of international law in the Occupied Palestinian Territory, including any violations of international humanitarian law and international human rights law, and that it “must bear the legal consequences of all its internationally wrongful acts, including by making reparation for the injury, including any damage, caused by such acts.”

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News Network
September 20,2024

Starting in the 2025-26 academic year, private universities in Karnataka offering professional courses will no longer conduct separate entrance exams. This decision follows a directive from the state’s Higher Education Department, prompting private universities to form an association and agree to this significant change.

In a recent meeting with Higher Education Minister Dr. M. C. Sudhakar, representatives from 17 private universities confirmed their decision to discontinue individual entrance tests. Of the 27 private universities in the state, 17 offer professional courses, and they have collectively agreed to accept scores from existing national or state-level entrance exams.

“Some universities will consider JEE scores, others will rely on KCET, and a few are inclined towards COMEDK,” Dr. Sudhakar stated, leaving the choice of examination to the universities themselves. However, the department has also suggested that the universities consider a unified entrance test for admissions.

Looking ahead, Dr. Sudhakar hinted that the government may introduce a common entrance test for general degree courses at private universities as well. "As government colleges and universities currently don’t require entrance exams for general degree courses, we haven’t made any decisions on this yet," he explained.

The meeting also addressed concerns over the high fees charged by private universities. To regulate this, the universities were instructed to establish fee fixation committees, headed by retired judges, as required by law. These committees will be responsible for determining tuition fees. Additionally, the government will continue to regulate fees for 40% of seats in professional courses that are filled through KCET.

In an effort to bring greater uniformity among private institutions, the government is considering enacting a common law for all private universities, which would replace the individual acts currently governing each university. This would place all private universities under a single regulatory framework.

This move is expected to streamline the admissions process and create a more standardized system for both professional and general degree programs across Karnataka's private universities.

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News Network
September 19,2024

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Mangaluru, Sep 19: Following the recent Nipah virus-related fatalities in Kerala, health authorities in Dakshina Kannada are taking proactive measures to monitor for potential cases of monkey fever. While typically found in African countries, monkey fever has raised concerns within the district, prompting increased vigilance.

To ensure early detection, travelers arriving at Mangaluru’s international airport and local ports will undergo health screenings. Additionally, a dedicated ambulance has been placed on standby for any emergent cases, and Wenlock Hospital has set aside a special ward with six reserved beds specifically for monkey fever patients.

"We currently have no confirmed cases of monkey fever in Dakshina Kannada, and there are no direct orders from the state government," said Dr. Timmaiah, the District Health Officer. "However, we are taking preventive measures, including continuous screening of incoming passengers. A special meeting is also being planned to discuss future action steps."

Dr. Timmaiah further highlighted the rise in general viral infections following the region's recent shift in weather patterns. "With the decline in rainfall, we are seeing an uptick in viral cases, particularly fevers accompanied by cough, cold, and throat pain, especially in children. Though Mangaluru has experienced mostly sunny weather, occasional rain at night has contributed to the spread of illnesses. It’s crucial for the public to remain vigilant and take preventive measures."

Health officials are urging residents to seek timely medical advice and follow recommended precautions to mitigate the spread of infectious diseases.

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